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18.02 Practice Exam 4 -- for April 25, 1997


Directions: Suggested time: 50 minutes.






1.
(20 points) The solid $ D$ is represented as the region of space between the graph of $ z=1-x^2-y^2$ and the $ xy$-plane. Find its moment of inertia about the $ z$-axis, if the density is $ \ell$.

Solution: The moment of inertia around the z-axis is the integral

\begin{multline*}
\iiint_D\ell (x^2+y^2)dV=\iint_R\int_0^{1-x^2-y^2}\ell(x^2+y^2) dz\,dx\,dy\\
=\iint_R \ell(x^2+y^2)(1-x^2-y^2)dx\,dy
\end{multline*}

where the shadow region $ R$ is $ x^2+y^2\le1.$ Introducing polar coordinates this becomes

MoI$\displaystyle =\int_0^{2\pi}\ell\int_0^1(1-r^2)r^2\,rdr\,d\theta =2\pi\ell\big[\frac14r^4-\frac16r^6\big]_0^1=\frac\pi6\ell.$    

2.
(20 points) A solid $ D$ has the shape of a filled ice cream cone: a right circular cone, surmounted by a slice from a sphere of radius $ a$.

The cone has slant height $ a$ and a vertex angle $ 60$ degrees as pictured.

Take the density to be $ 1$, and find the gravitational attraction of $ D$ on a unit mass placed at the vertex. (Set up and evaluate a triple integral in spherical coordinates.)





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Solution: By symmetry, the gravitational attraction on a unit mass at the origin is in the direction of the z-axis and hence equal to its $ {\bf k}$ component. This is

\begin{multline*}
G\iiint_D \frac{\cos\varphi}{\rho ^2}dV =\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{...
...\theta\\
=G2\pi a\big[\frac12\sin^2\varphi ]^{\pi/6}_0=Ga\pi/4.
\end{multline*}

3.
(5 points) Modify the iterated triple integral of the preceding problem so it now calculates the gravitational attraction at the vertex due to the part of $ D$ lying above the top of the cone (i.e., to the spherical slice). Just set up the integral; don't evaluate it.

Solution: Instead the integral becomes

$\displaystyle \int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{\pi/3}\int_{\frac{a\cos\pi/6}{\cos\varphi}}^a \cos\varphi \sin\varphi d\rho \,d\varphi \,d\theta.$    

4.
(10 points) Suppose the vector field $ F$ in the $ xy$-plane satisfies $ F= \nabla f$, where

$\displaystyle f_{xx} + f_{yy} =0 \quad \hbox{for all } x,y \, .
$

Show that $ F$ has no net flux through any simple closed curve $ C$.

This should not really have been on this practice exam. Better do one for flux through a surface.

Solution: $ {\bf F}=f_x{\bf i}+f_y{\bf j}.$ The flux form of Green's theorem for a simple closed curve $ C$ is

$\displaystyle \oint_C{\bf F}\cdot{\bf\hat n}ds=\iint_R \mathop{div}{\bf F}dA.$    

Since $ \mathop{div}{\bf F}=\frac{\partial}{\partial
x}(f_x)+\frac{\partial}{\partial y}(f_y)=f_{xx}+f_{yy}=0$ by assumption. Thus the flux integral must vanish.

5.
(45 points; 5, 15, 25)

Let $ S$ be the hemisphere of radius $ 1$, with base in the $ xy$-plane and center at the origin, and $ T$ be its base (the disc of radius $ 1$ and center at the origin in the $ xy$-plane). Both surfaces are oriented so their unit normal vectors point upwards, i.e., this is the direction of positive flux. Let $ {\bf F}=(3z+1){\bf k}$.

(a)
Find the flux of $ F$ over $ T$, by inspection.

(b)
Using your answer to part (a), find the flux of $ F$ over $ S$ by using the divergence theorem.

(c)
Find the flux of $ F$ over $ S$ directly, by calculating a surface integral using spherical coordinates.

Solution:

(a)
On $ T$ the normal upward normal is $ {\bf k}$ so $ {\bf F}\cdot{\bf j}=1$ and hence the flux upward through $ T$ is the area $ \pi.$

(b)
If $ {\bf\hat n}$ is the upward unit normal to both $ S$ and $ T$ then by the divergence theorem

$\displaystyle \iint_S{\bf F}\cdot{\bf\hat n}dS-\iint_T{\bf F}\cdot{\bf\hat n} dS=\iint_D{\nabla}\cdot{\bf F}dV.$    

The divergence is $ {\nabla}\cdot{\bf F}=3$ so

$\displaystyle \iint_S{\bf F}\cdot{\bf\hat n}dS=3$Vol$\displaystyle (D)+\pi=3\pi.$    

(c)
The flux integral written explicitly is

$\displaystyle \iint_S {\bf F}\cdot{\bf\hat n}dS=\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{\pi/2}(3z+1)z \sin\varphi d\varphi \,d\theta .$    

Here $ z=\cos\varphi$ on $ S$ so this flux integral is

\begin{multline*}
2\pi\int_0^{\pi/2}(3\cos^2\varphi\sin\varphi+\cos\varphi \sin\...
...\big[-\cos^3\varphi -\frac12\cos^2\varphi \big]_0^{\pi/2}
=3\pi.
\end{multline*}




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Richard B. Melrose
1999-04-30